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where does the church stand on the issue of “Re-marriage”?

Is it exactly clear as to whether one can still re-marry after divorce? I am not talking about re-marrying the ex-spouse but a new one.

what does this mean? ” Are you loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. But and if you marry, you have not sinned…” (1 corinth 7:27-28).


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7 thoughts on “where does the church stand on the issue of “Re-marriage”?

  1. shematwater on said:

    1 Corinthians 7

    This is a chapter containing come controversy. I will point out just a few passages that I think help to clarify the meaning.
    Eugene has done a good job in quoting verse 26, but I would like to use the KJV, as it give a little more information than the translation he uses. However, I will get to that verse later.

    Verse 1 “Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman.”
    We know from this verse that Paul is answering a direct question that the Corinthians had asked. As he does not state the question we can only speculate as to what it is. However, in another translation the verse states “Is it good for a man not to touch a woman?” thus telling us that the question directly concerns the sexual relation between a man and woman.

    Verse 6 Paul tells us “But I speak this by permission, and not of commandment.”
    From this we know that what he is about to say is his own thoughts and counsel, and is not a direct revelation from God. Now, Paul was a great man, so we can be fairly certain that his counsel was good. The question is, can we say the entire chapter is his counsel and not God’s.

    Verse 10 Paul tells us “And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband:”
    So, at this point he is giving a direct command from God, and is telling us that this is the case. This is what makes this chapter so fascinating to me. Paul is switching back and forth between God’s commands and his own personal judgment. He switches again in verse 12

    I bring all this up for a reason. From verse 2 to verse 5 Paul is telling people it is better to get married than to have sexual relations outside of that covenant. From verse 7 to 9 he is counseling the unmarried and widows to remain alone, and only marry if they find that the passion is to great for them to contain themselves.
    However, all of this is his own personal opinion, which he tells us in verse 6. However, when he starts to talk to the married in verse 10 he begins to give the Lords commands, not his own advice. In verse 11 he states that a woman who leaves her husband is not to remarry, but is to seek to be reconciled to her husband.
    In verse 12 he reverts back to his opinion, speaking now to those who are married, but only one of them is a believer. He gives detailed advice on how to handle the situation.

    This brings us to the verses in question, 26-28
    “I suppose therefore that this is good for the present distress, I say, that it is good for a man so to be.
    Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife.
    But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned. Nevertheless such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you.”

    I give 26 in the KJV because in this translation it once again emphasizes that Paul is giving his own thoughts, and not the commands of God. He does so with the permission of God and the other church leaders, but it is still his ideas, and not God’s.
    Now, Eugene is very correct in saying that verse 26 speaks to the rising persecution that the saints were experiencing, and that Paul knew they would experience.
    So, after my very round about way of getting to it, this is what Paul is saying in verses 27-28.
    If a person is already married they should not desire to end that relationship, as such a relationship is good. Even if one is married to an unbeliever they should not seek to end the marriage (verses 12-13), as they may be the salvation of their spouse.
    On the other hand, because of the severe persecution, one need not actively seek out that relationship (so if the unbelieving spouse wishes to leave let them-verse 15).
    This counsel was given to spare the saints extra problems in the turmoil that was about to come (29-31). The pain of the separation would make handling the coming persecution more difficult. On the other hand, the stress of trying to maintain an unwanted relationship, or establish a new one, would also make things more difficult. Added to this was the possibility of the unbelieving spouse turning against the believer and going to the authorities. Then was the consideration that having children at this time would case ever greater problems in trying to protect them, as well as trying yo raise them in a part-Christian home among such persecution.
    So, to ease the difficulties that Paul knew were already happening, and would continue in the foreseeable future, he tells them to simply stay as they are, and seek not to change their relationships. This is his point in verse 28.

    (Sorry for the length. I just really felt like writing today.)

  2. shematwater on said:

    Hello again.

    Matthew 19: 3-9 (KJV)
    “The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?
    And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,
    And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?
    Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
    They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
    He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.
    And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.”

    This is an interesting discourse. We know from this that the Law of Moses permitted divorcement, and for many different reasons. However, we also have Christ saying that the only justifiable reason is fornication (meaning sexual affairs with others). Are we to say that the Law of Moses was wrong, and that all those who lived under this law are sinners? This is not what Christ does.
    He explains that because the people at that time, and since that time, were not spiritually strong enough to handle the full law of the Celestial Glory Moses gave them a lesser law that they were able to live. As Moses received this law from God we must conclude that those who were subject to it (from Moses to Christ) were under no condemnation for divorcement, as it was then permitted. However, Christ revealed and restored the higher low of the Celestial Glory, which displaced the Mosaic Law. Under this law divorcement was not permitted, except in the case of Fornication, and thus getting a divorcement would be considered a sin and worthy of condemnation.

    Now, I understand that today we do not live the Law of Moses. However, if God was willing to give a kind of watered down law to ancient Israel because they were not capable of living the full law, it is not unreasonable to assume that he would be just as merciful to other at other times. So, the question of whether divorcement and remarriage is a sin is answered depending on the current condition of the human race, and the current law that is revealed from God. If you believe that what is written in the New Testament is the current law than you must accept that divorcement is wrong, and that remarriage after a wrongful divorce constitutes adultery.
    I personally do not believe we are under that same law, as the people today are very much like they were in the time of Moses, and are thus not capable of living that higher law. As such God has once again given permission for divorcements as directed by his chosen leaders.

    (to be continued)

  3. “And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for fornication, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.” (Matthew 19:9)

    I don’t believe it can get any clearer than that.

    • what does this mean? ” Are you loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. But and if you marry, you have not sinned…” (1 corinth 7:27-28).

      • The major context of those two verses is found in verse 26. If a person was not married it was good because of the present/growing persecution against Christians. But if a person chose to get married there was nothing sinful about it.

        The context as a whole would be, “I suppose therefore that this is good because of the present distress—that it is good for a man to remain as he is: 27 Are you bound [married] to a wife? Do not seek to be loosed. Are you loosed [single] from a wife? Do not seek a wife. 28 But even if you do marry, you have not sinned; and if a virgin marries, she has not sinned. Nevertheless such will have trouble in the flesh, but I would spare you.” (1 Corinthians 7:26-28)

        Have a great night.

  4. I’m pretty sure the Bible says somewhere that you can only re-marry when one of the spouses has passed away. Otherwise it’d be adultery. … Or something like that.

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